Text | Is Macbeth's fate inevitable? If it is, at what point does it becomes so? I argue that Macbeth’s moral compass is impaired by the witches; the fact he is ‘rapt’ suggests he is spellbound. However, a belief in free will confirms that the hand is the agent of the mind and thus Macbeth is ultimately the engineer of his own destiny. I think the free will point is interesting- particularly in light of him echoing but reversing the witches' lang in his opening 'so foul and fair a day', showing he is susceptible to their influence but not totally aligned with them I would argue when he says 'stay you imperfect speakers'. The witches have intrigued his curiosity & from that point he is fixated on the prophecies coming into fruition. He reaction, in comparison to Banquo, shines a light on the difference between the two & Macbeth's hamartia For me, it comes down the “tomorrow and tomorrow” speech. He fully accepts his inevitable once he loses his purpose - potentially his wife. Or even the realisation that he’s run out of time. I would say the moment he receives the prophecy from the witches, but I still see it as something within his control. He still had free will. I think killing Banquo made it inevitable. He thought he was taking control of his future and instead lost control of his mind. |
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